Across all 4 sets and their sub-sets, KCET Biology Unofficial Answer Key 2025 provided here will help students estimate their scores ahead of the official key's release. KCET Biology 2025 exam was held on April 17.

KCET Biology Unofficial Answer Key 2025 : The Karnataka Examinations Authority (KEA) conducted KCET Biology 2025 examination on April 17, 2025, from 2:30 to 3:50 PM. As the examination has concluded, our experts have compiled the questions and provided the unofficial answer key for the same on the page below. Since the question paper comprised 60 multiple-choice questions, the answers to all of them have been provided below. Since the multiple choice questions will be identical in all sets of the Biology question papers, candidates can review the answers by question. The order of questions across all sets will be different but the questions will remain the same.
KCET Expected Marks and Rank 2025 with 2nd PUC Weightage | KCET Unofficial Answer Key 2025 (All Subjects) |
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KCET Biology Unofficial Answer Key 2025
Access the unofficial answer key solutions for KCET 2025 Biology across all sets here and anticipate your scores. (Paper Code: C3)
Sr.No. (Not Q.No.) | Question | Answer |
---|---|---|
1 | Choose the correct sequence of sperm transport during ejaculation | Seminiferous tubules → rete testis → vas efferentia → epididymis → vasa deferens → ejaculatory duct |
2 |
Select the mismatched pair:
a) First month of pregnancy-Formation of heart b) Second month of pregnancy-Movement of foetus c) Third month of pregnancy-Formation of most of the major organ systems d) Sixth month of pregnancy - Eye lids separate and eye lashes are formed | b |
3 |
Out of the following options, identify which one is NOT a natural method of contraception?
(1) Lactational amenorrhea (2) Periodic abstinence (3) Coitus interruptusImplants (4) Implants | Implants |
4 | In zygote intrafallopian tube transfer, the embryo upto stage is transferred into thefallopian tube | 8 blastomeres |
5 |
Read the following statements:
Statement I: MTP is to get rid off wanted pregnancies due to causal unprotected intercourse or failure of contraceptives used during coitus or rapes Statement II: MTPs are performed legally by qualified doctors by giving proper medical justification Choose the correct answer from the options given below |
Statements I incorrect but Statement II is correct
|
6 | How many types of gainetes will be formed by a patent with genotype 'AaBbCc' | 8 |
7 | When a single gene exhibits multiple plienotypic expression, the phenomenon is called __ | Pleiatropy |
8 | A colourblind man marries a carrier woman. The percentage of their colourblind progeny in the next generation will be ----- | 50% |
9 |
Identify which one of the given pair of options is correct with respect to Down's syndrome and Turner's syndrome.
Option: Down's syndrome symptoms - Turner's syndrome symptoms a) Short-statured individual - Gynaecomastia in man b) Round head, partially open mouth - Overall masculine development c) Broad palm, physical and mental development retarded - Sterile females with rudimentary ovaries d) Aditional copy of an Xichirdimosome - Absence of an X chromosome | c |
10 | RNA polymerase II is responsible for the transcription of | hnRNA |
11 | Which of the following enzymes increases the permeability of the bacterial cell to inctose? | Permease |
12 |
Which of the following statements are correct with reference to prokaryotic genome
a) Monocistronic structural genes b) intrans absent in structural genes c) Transcription and translation are.coupled processes d) Promaly transcript undergoes spleino e) Only one RNA polymerase in prem | Only b,c and e are corect |
13 | When a change in the gene frequency of a population occur by chance is called __ | Genetic drift |
14 | Darwin's finches represent one of the best examples of | Adaptive radiation |
15 |
Choose the correct statements from the following:
a) Charles Darwin travelled around the world in a ship called HMS Beagle b) There has been grattual evolution of life forms c) According to Darwin fitonte refers to physical fitnes only d) Fassiis are rets of hand warts of its forms founds in rocks e) Huge De voert worked on Malay Archipelago | a, b and d are correct |
16 |
In which of the following HIV replicates and prodoces its progeny vizantes?
(1) Killer T-lymphocytes (2) Suppressor Tlymphocytes (3) Helper Tymphocytes (4) Measury Flyitaрсуте | Hetper Tymphocytes |
17 |
Which of the following are the techniques for detection of cancer of internal organs?
a) Radiography, MRI b) MRI, computed tomography c) Wadal test, radiography d) MRI, Midst test | a and b |
18 | Malignant malaria is caused by | Plasmodium falciparum |
19 | The drug prescribed to the patients who have undergone organ transplant is ___and is produced by | Cyclosporin A, Trichoderma polysporum |
20 |
Read the following statements and select the correct option
Statement I: Biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods for controlling plant diseases and pests Statemenrt II: Trichoderma species are effective bocontrol agents for several plant pathogens | Both Statement Iand statement II are correct |
21 |
Match the Column I with Column-II. Choose the correct option given below
Column I a) Streptococcus b) Penicillium c) Methamogeos d) Anabaena Column II i. Free living nitrogen tema pactusa ii. Clot buster iii. Sourceof antibotic iv. Biogas produktion | a-ii, b-iii, c-iv,d-i |
22 |
Match the contents of List-l with List-lI
List-1 a) Bioreactors b) Downstream processing c) Recombinant proteve d) PCR List-lI i. Insulin produced by DNA technology ii. Vessels which convert raw material specific product iii. Detect mutated genes n. suspecte patient iv. Involves separaban and purification Choose the correct options from the following | a-ii, b-iv, c-i,d-iii |
23 | The part of plasmid that codes for proteins involved in the replication of the p 8R322 Plasmid is | "rop" |
24 | To isolate DNA from fungal cells, bacterial cells and plant cells, the enzymes required are respectively | Chitinase, Lysozyme and Cellulase |
25 | In mature insulin, which of the peptide not present? | C-peptide |
26 |
A scientist wants to produce vinis free plan in tissue cultore. Which part of the plant will he used as explant?
a) mature stem b) axilluary meristem c) apical mentent d) mesophyll cell Choose the correct options from the following | b and c |
27 | Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce proteins that kill insects. Which one of the following is not killed by proteins of Bacillus thuringiensis | Tapeworm |
28 | Which one of the following population attributes.contributes to increase in population density? | Natality and Immigration |
29 | If 8 individuals in a laboratory population of 80 fruit flies died during a specified time interval the death rate in the population during that period is | 0.1 individual time interval |
30 | Choose the correct sequence of steps involved in decomposition | Fragmentation → Leaching → Catabolism → Humification → Mineralisation |
31 |
With respect to limitation of Ecological pyramids, which of the following statements are correct?
a) It does not take into account the same species belonging f totwo or more tropic levels b) It assumes a smiple food chain, something that and never existed in nature c) It accommdates saprophytes d) It does not accommdates a food web Choose the correct answer front the options quem below | a, b and d |
32 | The Sixth Extinction' of species, presently in progress, is----times faster than the previous five episodes of mass extinctions. | 100 to 1000 |
33 | Species diversity ___ as we move away from the ___ towards____ | Decreases, Equator, Poles |
34 |
In a practical examination, the following pedigree chart was given as a spotter for identification.The students identify the given pedigree chart as
| Autosomal recessive |
35 | A student oliserved the 15 of a plant organ slide under microscope. He observed the vascular bundles on the stelar region in rollyomt collateral And rpen Based on these features of vascular bundle, Identify the correct option from below: | Dicot stem |
36 | A student observed the slide of mitosis under the microscope and observed that the chromosomes were placed at the opposite poles. Which stage was the student observing | Telophase |
37 | Identify the incorrect statement with respect to the rules of Binomial Nomenclatore | Biological names are printed-in italics to indicate their non-Latin origin |
38 |
Match Column-I with Column-ll and choose the correct option given below.
Column I (Bacteria) a)Coccus b) Bacillus c) Viboum d) Spiritu Column Il (Shape) i) Rod-shaped ii) Spiral iii) Spherical iv) Comma shaped | a-iii, b-i,c-iv,d-ii |
39 |
Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I : Gemmae are green unicellular sexual buds which develop in receptacles called gemma cups Statement II: Protonema develops directly from a spore | Statement I is false but Statement II is the ture |
40 | During a field trip, a student observed a marine organism with worm-like body. The cylindrical body was divisible inte proboscis, collar and a fong trunk. The organism may be | Balanogiossus |
41 |
Identify the types of aestivation in corolla labelled as 'a', 'b', 'c' and 'd'
| a-Vexillary, b- Imbricate, c-Twisted, d-Valvate |
42 |
Match the Column-l with Column-II and choose the correct option:
Column-1 (Characteristics of vascular bundle) a) Radial fetrarch cambial ring between xylem and phloem at later stages b) Conjoint open and endarch - c) Radial polyarch) large pith without cambial ring d) Conjoint, closed with sclerenchymatous bundles sheath Column-II (Transverse section) i) T.S. of monocot stem ii) TS. of dicot root iii) T.S. of monocot root iv) T.S. of dicot stem | a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i |
43 |
Which of the following statements are correct with respect to Frogs?
a) Bidder's canals are present in male Frogs b) Copulatory pads are present in female Frogs c) Sound producing vocal sacs are present in male Frogs d) Cloaca is present in male Frog only. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: | a and c |
44 | The reserve material in prokaryotic cells are stored in the cytoplasm in the form of | Inclusion bodies |
45 | The cell wall less prokaryote among the following is | Mycoplasma |
46 |
The graph showing the concept of activation energy of enzyme is given below:
Observe the graph and choose the correct option for M and N. | M-Activation energy without enzyme, N-Activation energy with enzyme |
47 |
Match the stages of prophase I given in Column-I with their features in Column-ll and choose the correct options from the choices given below:
Column-I a) Leptotene b) Zygotene c) Pachytene d) Diplotene e) Diakinesis Column-II i) Exchange of genetic materials between non-sister chromatids of the homologous chromosomes ii) Chromosomes visible under light microscope iii) Dissolution of synaptonemal complex iv) Chromosomes start pairing together v) Terminalisation of chiasmata | a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, e-v |
48 |
Read the given statements and choose the correct option:
Statement I: In Calvin cycle, Carboxylation is catalysed by PEP Carboxylase Statement II: In Hatch-Slack pathway, Carboxylation is catalysed by RuBP Carboxylase. | Statement I is false but Statement II is true |
49 | The TCA cycle starts with the condensation of acetyl group with | Oxaloacetic acid |
50 |
Match the plant growth hormones of Column-l with suitable chemical derivatives present in Column-II and choose the correct option given below:
Column-l a) Abscisic acid b) Gibberellins c) Kinetin d) Auxin Column-II i) Adenine derivative ii) Indole acetic acid iii) Carotenoid derivative iv) Terpenes | a - iii, b-iv, c - i, d-ii |
51 | The respiratory mechanism controlled by medulla oblongata can be altered by | Both Pneumotaxic and Chemosensitive areas of pons and medulia oblongata |
52 | Which among the three layers of blood vessel wall - Tunica intima, Tunica media and Tunica Externa is comparatively thin in the veins? | Tunica media |
53 | In nephron, transport of substances like sodium chloride and urea is facilitated by the speci arrangement called counter current mechanism that comprises of | Henle's loop and Vasa Recta |
54 | In the mechanism of muscle contraction or shortening of muscle, the___ whereas the ___retain the length____get reduced | I bands, A bands |
55 | Identify the correct sequence of action potential as it arrives at the axon terminal from the choices given below: | Axon terminal →Synaptic vesicles → Synaptic cleft → Post-synaptic membrane → Post-synaptic neuron |
56 |
Identify the statement/s given below that does not correspond to the functions of cortisol
i) Maintains cardiovascular system and kidney functions ii) Produces anti-inflammatory reactions Ili) Maintains electrolyte balance, osmosis and blood pressure iv) Suppresses immune response v) Stimulates RBC production | iii only |
57 | When pollen grains of a flower of a plant pollinate the stigma of flower of another plant, it iscalled | Xenogamy |
58 | Fusion of a male gamete with the central cell in the embryo sac of an angiosperm called ___ | Triple fusion |
59 | Which of these options is true in the context of the above diagram of pollen grain? | A' is a vegetative cell with abundant food reserve and 'B' is a generative cell which forms male gametes |
60 |
Match the hormone with its site of production:
Hormone a) hCG and HPL b) Progesterone c) Androgens d) Relaxin Site of production i) Ovary ii) Placenta iii) Corpus luteum iv) Leydig cells | a-ii, b- iii, c-i, d-iv |
Test takers can check the answers to evaluate their overall performance in the test. For every right answer, candidates can calculate their score by providing 1 mark for every correct answer and vaguely estimate their score out of 60. Candidates must note that this is an unofficial answer key, and therefore, there might be a few errors. The official answer key will be released by the conducting authorities in due course of time. Until then, candidates can refer to the unofficial answer key below to better understand their performance.
KCET Answer Key 2025 and Analysis Subject-Wise |
KCET Expected Marks vs Rank 2025 |
Marks | Expected Rank |
---|---|
170 marks | Expected Rank for 170 Marks in KCET 2025 |
160 marks | Expected Rank for 160 Marks in KCET 2025 |
150 marks | Expected Rank for 150 Marks in KCET 2025 |
140 marks | Expected Rank for 140 Marks in KCET 2025 |
130 marks | Expected Rank for 130 Marks in KCET 2025 |
100 marks | Expected Rank for 100 Marks in KCET 2025 |
90 marks | Expected Rank for 90 Marks in KCET 2025 |
70 marks | Expected Rank for 70 Marks in KCET 2025 |
60 marks | Expected Rank for 60 Marks in KCET 2025 |
50 marks | Expected Rank for 50 Marks in KCET 2025 |
40 marks | Expected Rank for 40 Marks in KCET 2025 |
KCET Expected Rank vs Marks 2025 |
Rank | Expected Marks |
---|---|
1000 rank | Expected Marks for 1000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
2000 rank | Expected Marks for 2000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
5000 rank | Expected Marks for 5000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
7000 rank | Expected Marks for 7000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
8000 rank | Expected Marks for 8000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
9000 rank | Expected Marks for 9000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
10000 rank | Expected Marks for 10000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
20000 rank | Expected Marks for 20000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
25000 rank | Expected Marks for 25000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
30000 rank | Expected Marks for 30000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
40000 rank | Expected Marks for 40000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
50000 rank | Expected Marks for 50000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
60000 rank | Expected Marks for 60000 Rank in KCET 2025 |
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