KCET Chemistry Unofficial Answer Key 2025 OUT: Set-wise questions with answer key solutions

KCET Chemistry Unofficial Answer Key 2025: Set-wise questions with answer key solutions (Image Credit: iStock)

KCET Chemistry Unofficial Answer Key 2025 : The KCET 2025 Chemistry exam took place on April 16, 2025, from 2:30 PM to 3:50 PM. Now that the exam is over, our experts have prepared an unofficial answer key to help candidates assess their performance. Although the answer key is unofficial, it is designed to give students an idea of their potential scores. The 60-question multiple-choice paper had one mark for each question, and we have provided answers for all of them. Candidates can use this to determine how many questions they answered correctly and incorrectly out of 60, and estimate their chances of passing. Since there is no negative marking, candidates need not deduct any for wrong answers. A score of 35-45 is a safe score to pass in the Chemistry segment. This is irrespective of the category candidates belong to.

KCET Chemistry Unofficial Answer Key 2025

The unofficial answer key solutions for KCET 2025 Chemistry are available across all sets, allowing candidates to estimate their scores. The multiple-choice questions are the same in all sets, enabling candidates to review answers by question. The order of questions will differ across each set and sub-sets but the questions will remain the same.

Also Helpful | KCET Chemistry Paper Review 2025

Sr.No. (Not Q.No.)	Question	Answer
1	For a given half cell, Al 3+ + 3e - → Al on increasing the concentration of aluminium ion, the electrode potential will	Increase
2	Match the following and select the correct option for the quantity of electricity, in Cmol-¹, required to deposit various metals at cathode.	a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
3	Catalysts are used to increase the rate of a chemical reaction. Because it	Decreases the activation energy of the reaction
4	Half-life of a first order reaction is 20 seconds and initial concentration of reactant is 0.2M. The concentration of reactant left after 80 seconds is	0.0125 M
5	In the given graph, E a for the reverse reaction will be	125 KJ
6	For the reaction 2N 2 O 5(g) → 4NO 2(g) + O 2(g) initial concentration of N 2 O 5 is 2.0 mol L -1 and after 300 min. it is reduced to 1:4 mol L -1 . The rate of production of NO 2 (in mol L -1 min -1 ) is	4 * 10 -3
7	Which of the following methods of expressing concentration are unitless?	Mole fraction and Mass percent (W/W)
8	Select the INCORRECT statement/s from the following: (a) 22 books have infinite significant figures. (b) In the answer of calculation 2.5 × 1.25 has four significant figures. (c) Zero's preceding to first non-zero digit are significant. (d) In the answer of calculation 12.11 + 18.0+ 1.012 has three significant figures	(b) and (c) only
9	Given below are the atomic masses of the elements: Which of the following doesn't form triad?	Cl, K, Ca
10	The change in hybridisation (if any) of the 'Al' atom in the following reaction is AlCl 3 + Cl - → AlCl - 4	sp 2 to sp 3
11	Match List-I and List-II and select the correct option: (a) NO        -        (i) 1.5 (b) CO        -        (ii) 2.0 (c) O - 2 -          (iii) 2.5 (d) O 2 -         (iv) 3.0	a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
12	The electronic configuration of X and Y are given below: X: 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 3 Y: 1s 2 2s 2 2p 6 3s 2 3p 5 Which of the following is the correct molecular formula and type of bond formed between X and Y?	XY 3 , covalent bond
13	Match List-I with List-II	a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
14	In the following pairs, the one in which both transition metal ions are colourless is	Sc 3+ , Zn 2+
15	In the reaction between hydrogen sulphide and acidified permanganate solution,	H 2 S is oxidised to S, MnO - 4 is reduced to Mn 2+
16	A member of the Lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +4 oxidation state is	Cerium
17	In which of the following pairs, both the elements do not have (n-1) d 10 ns 2 configuration?	Ag, Cu
18	A ligand which has two different donor atoms and either of the two ligates with the central metal atom/ion in the complex is called	Ambidentate ligand
19	Which of the following statements are true about [NiCl¸] 2- ? (a) The complex has tetrahedral geometry. (b) Co-ordination number of Ni is 2 and oxidation state is +4. (c) The complex is sp 3 hybridised (d) It is a high spin complex. (e) The complex is paramagnetic.	a, c, d and e
20	Which formula and its name combination is incorrect?	[Co(NH 3 ) 5 , (CO 3 )]Cl, Pentaamine carbonylcobalt (III) chloride
21	In the complex ion [Fe (C 2 O 4 ) 3 ] 3- , the Co-ordination number of Fe is	6
22	Match List-I with List-II for the following reaction pattern.	a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
23	The correct sequence of α-amino acid, hormone, vitamin, carbohydrates respectively is	Aspartic acid, Insulin, Ascorbic acid, rhamnose
24	Which examples of carbohydrates exhibit α–link (α–glycosidic link) in their structure?	Amylose and Amylopectin
25	In the titration of potassium permanganate (KMnO 4 ) against Ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) solution, dilute sulphuric acid but not nitric acid is used to maintain acidic medium, because	Nitric acid itself is an oxidising agent.
26	The group reagent NH 4 Cl(s) and aqueous NH 3 will precipitate which of the following ions?	Al 2+
27	In the preparation of sodium fusion extract, the purpose of fusing organic compound with a piece of sodium metal is to	Convert the elements of the compound from covalent form to ionic form
28	The sodium fusion extract is boiled with concentrated nitric acid while testing for halogens. By doing so, it	decompasses Na 2 S and NaCN, if formed
29	Which of the following is not an aromatic compound?
30	The IUPAC name of the given organic compound is HC ≡ C - CH = CH - CH = CH 2	Hexa - 1, 3 - dien - 5 - yne
31	Among the following, identify the compound that is not an isomer of hexane.
32		Benzyl halide
33	Chlorobenzene reacts with bromine gas in the presence of Anhyd AlBr 3 , to yield p-Bromochlorobenzene. This reaction is classified as _______.	Electrophilic substitution reaction
34	The organometallic compound (CH 3 ) 3 CMgBr on reaction with D 2 O produces ______.	(CH 3 ) 3 CD
35	The major product formed when 1-Bromo-3-Chlorocyclobutane reacts with metallic sodium in dry ether is
36	Ethyl alcohol is heated with concentrated sulphuric acid at 413 K. The major product formed is	C 2 H 2 - O - C 2 H 5
37	Phenol can be distiguished from propanol by using the reagent.	Bromine water
38	Match the following with their pKa values (I) Phenol            -            (a) 16 (II) p-Nitrophenol    -            (b) 0.78 (III) Ethyl alcohol        -        (c) 10 (IV) Picric acid        -            (d) 7.1	I-c, II-d, III-a, IV-b
39
40	Oxidation of Toluene with chromyl chloride followed by hydrolysis gives Benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as ______.	Etard Reaction
41	Statement-I: Reduction of ester by DIBAL-H followed by hydrolysis gives aldehyde. Statement-II: Oxidation of benzyl alcohol with aqueous KMnO 4 leads to the formation of Benzaldehyde. Among the above statements, identify the correct statement.	Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
42	Arrange the following compounds in their decreasing order of reactivity towards Nucleophilic addition reaction. CH 3 COCH 3 , CH 3 COC 2 H 5 , CH 3 CHO	CH 3 CHO > CH 3 CO CH 3 > CH 3 CO C 2 H 5
43	Which of the following has most acidic Hydrogen?	Trichloroacetic acid
44	Which of the following reagents are suitable to differentiate Aniline and N-methylaniline chemically?	Chloroform and Alcoholic potassium hydroxide
45	Which of the following reaction/s does not yield an anime?	Only III
46	Match the compounds given in List-I with the items given in List-II	I-b, II-a, III-d, IV-c
47	The number of orbitals associated with 'N' shell of an atom is	16
48	According to Heisenberg's Uncertainty principle, the value of Δ v. Δ x for an object whose mass is 10 -6 kg is (h = 6.626 * 10 -34 Js)	5.2 * 10 -29 m -2 s -1
49	Given below are statements: Statement-I: Adiabatic work done is positive when work is done on the system and internal energy of the system increases Statement-II: No work is done during free expansion of an ideal, gas In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.	Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
50	Which one of the following ractions has ΔH = ΔU?
51	Identify the incorrect statements among the following. (a) All enthalpies of fusion are positive. (b) The magnitude of enthalpy change does not depend on the strength of the intermolecular interactions in the substance undergoing phase transformations. (c) When a chemical reaction is reversed, the value of ΔrH° is reversed in sign. (d) The change in enthalpy is dependent of path between initial state (reactants) and final state (products) (c) For most of the ionic compounds, Δ sol H° is negative.	a, b and d
52	Which of the following statements is/are true about equilibrium? (a) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system at a given temperature (b) All the measurable properties of the system remain constant at equilibrium. (c) Equilibrium constant for the reverse reaction is the inverse of the equilibrium constant for the reaction in the forward direction.	a, b and c
53	According to Le Chatelier's principle, in the reaction the formation of methane is favoured by (a) increasing the concentration of CO (b) increasing the concentration of H 2 O (c) decreasing the concentration of CH 4 (d) decreasing the concentration of H 2	a and c
54	The equilibrium constant at 298K for the reaction A + B ⇔ C + D is 100. If the initial concentrations of all the four species were 1M each, then equilibrium concentration of D (in mol L -1 ) will be	1.818
55	Among the following 0.1 m aqueous solutions, which one will exhibit the lowest boiling point elevation, assuming complete ionisation of the compounds in solution?	Sodium Chloride
56	Variation of solubility with temperature T for a gas in liquid is shown by the following graphs. The correct representation is
57	180g of glucose, C 6 H 12 O 6 , is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a vessel. The temperature at which water boils at 1.013 bar is _____ (given, K b for water is 0.52K kg mol -1 . Boiling point for pure water is 373.15 K)	373.67 K
58	If N 2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many moles of N 2 gas would dissolve in 1 litre of water? Assume that N 2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. [Given K H for N 2 at 293 K is 76.48 K bar]	7.16 * 10 -4
59	The correct statement/s about Galvanic cell is/are (a) Current flows from cathode to anode (b) Anode is positive terminal X (c) If E cell < 0, then it is spontaneous reaction (d) Cathode is positive terminal	a and d only
60	The electronic conductance depends on	The number of valence electrons per atom

KCET Chemistry Question Paper 2025

Aspirants can download the KCET Chemistry Question Paper 2025 by clicking on the link given below.

The official answer key is expected to be released by the authorities soon. In the meantime, candidates can use the unofficial answer key to plan their next steps. Once the official answer key is released, it will initially be provisional, allowing candidates to raise objections if they identify any errors. The final answer key will be released after addressing any objections, and it will be used to evaluate candidate performance and determine results.

KCET Answer Key 2025 and Analysis Subject-Wise |

KCET Expected Marks vs Rank 2025 |

KCET Expected Rank vs Marks 2025 |

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