The shift-wise GATE Unofficial Answer Key Solutions for February 15 and 16, 2025 will be available shortly here. The unofficial answer key for GATE 2025 Feb 15 and Feb 16 exams will be provided here basis the availability of questions.

GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key LIVE Updates: Today is the day 3 of GATE 2025 exam and like the past two days, GATE 15 and 16 Feb exams will also be held in two shifts, from 9.30 AM to 12.30 PM and from 2.30 PM to 5.30 PM. Once the shift-wise GATE 2025 exam will end, several coaching centres such as MadeEasyand subject-matter experts of CollegeDekho will release the GATE subject-wise unofficial answer keys, based on the memory-based questions. Candidates can refer to the GATE 2025 subject-wise unofficial answer key here, so that they can find out their performance and calculate their tentative scores in the exam. Post that the IIT Roorkee will release the GATE provisional answer key for several subjects separately on the official website.
Did you appear for the GATE 2025 Exam today? Click here for submitting the GATE memory-based questions. |
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GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Download PDF
Candidates can check out the GATE 2025 Feb 15 and 16 subject-wise unofficial answer key PDFs here in the following table:
Dates | Shift | Links to Download |
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February 15, 2025 | Shift 1 |
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February 16, 2025 | Shift 1 |
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GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: How to Calculate Scores?
Using the GATE unofficial answer key, the candidates should compare their marked answers with the correct answers. Whether their responses are correctly marked, then they can add 1 mark, 2 marks respectively. However, for the incorrectly marked answers:
- For 1 Mark questions: Candidates will get a deduction of ⅓ marks for each answer
- For 2 Marked questions: Candidates will get a deduction of 2/3 marks for each answers
- No negative marking is there for the unanswered or the NAT questions
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key LIVE Updates
08 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's CH Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 25 350 2023 32.1 350 07 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EY Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 35.8 350 2023 42.6 350 07 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EY Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 32.2 297 2023 38.3 280 07 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EY Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 23.8 -55 2023 28.4 118 06 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's BM Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 16.6 152 2023 16.6 149 06 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's BM Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 22.5 286 2023 22.5 290 06 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's BM Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 25 350 2023 25 249 05 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C6 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 36 350 OBC/EWS 32.4 249 SC/ST/PwD 24 225 05 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C5 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 52.7 350 OBC/EWS 47.4 217 SC/ST/PwD 35.1 123 05 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C4 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 39.3 350 OBC/EWS 35.3 210 SC/ST/PwD 26.1 210 04 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C3 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 49.7 350 OBC/EWS 44.7 193 SC/ST/PwD 33.1 250 04 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C2 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 48 350 OBC/EWS 43.2 260 SC/ST/PwD 32 195 04 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's XH-C1 Cutoff
Categories Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 37 350 OBC/EWS 33.3 284 SC/ST/PwD 24.6 185 03 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's GE Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 41.1 350 2023 28.7 350 03 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's GE Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 36.9 278 2023 25.8 295 03 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's GE Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 27.4 130 2023 19.1 167 02 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EC Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 16.6 226 2023 19.9 226 02 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EC Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 22.5 313 2023 26.9 313 02 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's EC Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 25 350 2023 29.9 350 01 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's PI Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 30.5 350 2023 44.2 350 01 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's PI Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 27.4 308 2023 39.7 289 01 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's PI Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 20.3 235 2023 29.4 148 12 40 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's ES Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 25.2 119 2023 18.4 197 12 20 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's ES Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 34.1 291 2023 24.9 304 12 00 PM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's ES Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 37.9 350 2023 27.7 350 11 40 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's DA Cutoff
Category Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score General 37.1 340 OBC/EWS 33.3 298 SC/ST/PwD 24.7 243 11 20 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's AE Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 22.1 103 2023 16.7 238 11 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's AE Cutoff for OBC/EWS Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 29.9 311 2023 22.5 315 10 40 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's AE Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 33.3 350 2023 25.1 350 10 20 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's CY Cutoff for SC/ST/PwD
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 16.7 133 2023 17.6 226 10 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's CY Cutoff for OBC/EWS
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 22.6 311 2023 23.8 313 09 40 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Year's CY Cutoff for General Category
Year Qualifying Marks Qualifying Score 2024 25.2 350 2023 26.5 350 09 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Shift 1 Exam Starts
GATE 2025 day 4 exam has been started, which will be ended at 12.30 PM. Candidates are asked to stay connected with this live blog to get access to the unofficial answer keys.
09 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Key: How to Calculate Score?
Total marks= Total marks secured for correct response- Negative marks for Incorrect response
08 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Key: Importance of Answer Key
- GATE unofficial answer key consists the correct answers of the questions asked
- Candidates should check out the correct answers and predict the probable scores
08 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Shift 1 Reporting Ends
GATE 2024 day 4 shift 1 exam reporting process ends. Candidates are not allowed to enter inside the exam hall further.
07 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Who will release official answer key?
IIT Roorkee will soon release the GATE 2025 subject-wise official answer key PDF on the official website. Tentatively the GATE official answer key will be released by February 26, 2025.
07 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q11
The unique flavor of chocolate and cocoa is due to the formation of:
A. 5-methyl-2-phenyl-2-hexenal
B. Cyclotene
C. Furaneol
D. Maltol
06 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q10
The product of cabbage fermentation by Leuconostoc mesenteroides is:
A. Tempeh
B. Natto
C. Sauerkraut
D. Miso
06 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XL Q9
Which one of the following absorbents is NOT used as an ethylene absorber in active packaging of fruits and vegetables?
A. Potassium permanganate
B. Activated carbon
C. Calcium hydroxide
D. Silica gel
05 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Day 4 Exam
Today is day 4 and last exam of GATE 2025, which also be conducted in two shifts. After every shifts, the subject-wise unofficial answer keys will be added here.
05 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q8
Which one of the following statements regarding moisture sorption isotherms of a dried food is NOT correct?
A. At a given temperature, the difference between adsorption and desorption moisture isotherms is known as hysteresis
B. At a given temperature and water activity, an adsorption isotherm exhibits higher equilibrium moisture content than a desorption isotherm in hysteresis
C. At a given moisture content, effect of temperature on a moisture sorption isotherm follows the Clausius- Clapeyron equation
D. The Guggenheim-Anderson-de Boer (GAB) equation is a multilayer moisture sorption model
04 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q7
Processing of fluid milk at 72 ℃ for 15 seconds is termed as-
A. High-temperature, short-time (HTST) pasteurization
B. Low-temperature, long-time (LTLT) pasteurization
C. Ultra high-temperature (UHT) pasteurization
D. Homogenization process
04 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q6
Which of the following fatty acids is/are known to increase the low density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol?
A. Omega-3 Fatty acids
B. Trans Fatty acids
C. Conjugated Linoleic acids
D. Saturated Fatty acids
03 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial Answer Key: Previous Years XL Q5
The addition of which of the following to high-methoxyl pectin will result in gel formation?
A. Calcium ions
B. Hydrogen ions
C. Sodium ions
D. Sugar
03 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XL Q4
Which of the following steps in food processing is/are used to reduce the acrylamide formation in food products?
A. Pretreatment using asparaginase
B. Lowering the pH
C. Increasing the temperature
D. Adding glucose
02 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XL Q3
Which of the following enzymes is/are used for the production of high fructose syrup (HFS) from corn starch?
A. α-Amylase
B. β-Amylase
C. Xylose isomerase
D. Glucoamylase
02 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XL Q2
Which of the following is/are typical characteristic(s) of a fungal cell?
A. Presence of histone proteins
B. Presence of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
C. Presence of chitin in the cell wall
D. Presence of pseudomurein in the cell wall
01 30 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XL Q1
Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding food and water borne disease and the class of causative microorganisms?
A. Legionellosis is a bacterial disease
B. Giardiasis is caused by the protists
C. Typhoid fever is caused by the virus
D. Listeriosis is a fungal disease
01 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q6
Which of the following statements is/ are true?
A. Hagen-Poiseuille’s law is used for calculation of molecular diffusion
B. Fick’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
C. Rittinger’s law is used for calculation of energy requirement in size reduction.
D. Stokes law is used for derivation of terminal velocity.
12 00 AM IST - 16 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q5
Which of the following statements is/ are correct regarding food and water borne disease and the class of causative microorganisms?
A. Legionellosis is a bacterial disease.
B. Giardiasis is caused by the protists.
C. Typhoid fever is caused by the virus.
D. Listeriosis is a fungal disease
11 30 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q4
A 10 kg tomato pulp is concentrated from an initial moisture content of 90% (wet weight basis) to 35% (wet weight basis). The weight of the concentrate in kg is __________ (round off to 2 decimal places).
11 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q3
Net solar radiation of 1360 W m−2 is incident on the surface of a still lake having mixed layer depth of 20 m. Find the change in temperature (in SI units) of the mixed layer of the lake for a day length of 8 hours. (Rounded off to 2 decimal places)
Assume that there is no variation in solar radiation in a day and all radiation incident on the surface is absorbed uniformly throughout the mixed layer (Density of lake water is 1025 kg m−3 and Specific heat capacity (Cp) of lake water is 3850 J kg−1 K−1).
10 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q2
Wind blows over the ocean surface at a speed of 10 m s−1 . Calculate the magnitude of wind stress, in Pa, using bulk formulation. (Drag coefficient is 1.4 × 10−3 and density of air is 1.3 kg m−3) (Rounded off to 3 decimal places)
10 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years XE Q1
Two stations ‘A’ and ‘B’, present at a latitude of 30°N are separated by a distance of 10 km. If the difference in sea surface height between these two stations is 1 m, what will be the magnitude of geostrophic current velocity in SI units? (Assume the angular velocity of earth is 10−4 s−1) (Answer in integer)
10 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years BT Q5
Fermentation medium is cooled from 121°C to 30°C in a double pipe heat exchanger. If cold water is flowing in the counter-current direction and is heated from 10°C to 70°C, then the Log-Mean Temperature Difference (LMTD) is ________°C (rounded off to the nearest integer).
09 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years BT Q4
The free energy change of ATP hydrolysis at 25° C is -32.2 kJ mol-1. The free energy change for hydrolysis of α-glycerophosphate to glycerol is -8.2 kJ mol-1 at 25° C. Using the above information, the free energy change for the formation of α-glycerophosphate from glycerol and ATP is ________ kJ mol-1 (Answer in integer).
09 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years BT Q3
E. coli is inoculated in a shake flask containing nutrient rich medium. The initial number of viable cells in the medium is 102 . After a few hours, the number of viable cells is 106 . Assuming a cell divides by binary fission, the number of generations that have taken place is ________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
09 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years BT Q2
A fermentor is filled with medium at a rate of 1 L min-1 . A leak develops at the bottom of the fermentor when the medium in the fermentor reaches 200 L. The rate of medium leakage is 2t L min-1 , where ‘t’ is the time at which the leak begins.
The volume of medium in the fermentor after 10 min of leakage is ________ L (Answer in integer).
08 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years BT Q1
Consider scale-up of fungal fermentation from a 20 L model-type to 20,000 L prototype stirred tank reactor. The model-type and prototype have the same aspect ratio during scale-up. The impeller speed in the model-type is 500 rpm and the scale-up criterion is constant shear.
The impeller speed in the prototype reactor will be ________ rpm (Answer in integer).
08 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years PH Q2
Apart from the acoustic modes, 9 optical modes are identified from the measurements of phonon dispersions of a solid with chemical formula AnBm, where
08 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years PH Q1
A material behaves as a superconductor below a critical temperature Tc and as a normal conductor above Tc . A magnetic field
07 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CH Q2
Heat is available at a rate of 2 kW from a thermal reservoir at 400 K. A two-stage process harnesses this heat to produce power. Stages 1 and 2 reject heat at 360 K and 300 K, respectively. Stage 2 is driven by the heat rejected by Stage 1. If the overall process efficiency is 50% of the corresponding Carnot efficiency, the power delivered by the process, in kW, rounded off to 2 decimal places, is ______
07 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CH Q1
Consider a tray-column of diameter 120 cm. Each downcomer has a cross-sectional area of 575 cm2 . For a tray, the percentage column cross-sectional area not available for vapour flow due to the downcomers, rounded off to 1 decimal place, is _____________
07 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q11
A homogeneous earth dam has a maximum water head difference of 15 m between the upstream and downstream sides. A flownet was drawn with the number of potential drops as 10 and the average length of the element as 3 m. The specific gravity of the soil is 2.65. For a factor of safety of 2.0 against piping failure, the void ratio of the soil is ______________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
06 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q10
The in-situ percentage of voids of a sand deposit is 50%. The maximum and minimum densities of sand determined from the laboratory tests are 1.8 g/cm3 and 1.3 g/cm3 , respectively. Assume the specific gravity of sand as 2.7.
The relative density index of the in-situ sand is ______________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
06 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q9
A drained triaxial test was conducted on a saturated sand specimen using a stress-path triaxial testing system. The specimen failed when the axial stress reached a value of 100 kN/m2 from an initial confining pressure of 300 kN/m2 .
The angle of shearing plane (in degrees) with respect to horizontal is ________________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
06 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q8
A 500 m long water distribution pipeline P with diameter 1.0 m, is used to convey 0.1 m3 /s of flow. A new pipeline Q, with the same length and flow rate, is to replace P. The friction factors for P and Q are 0.04 and 0.01, respectively. The diameter of the pipeline Q (in meters) is ______________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
05 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q7
A 2 m × 1.5 m tank of 6 m height is provided with a 100 mm diameter orifice at the center of its base. The orifice is plugged and the tank is filled up to 5 m height. Consider the average value of discharge coefficient as 0.6 and acceleration due to gravity (g) as 10 m/s2 . After unplugging the orifice, the time (in seconds) taken for the water level to drop from 5 m to 3.5 m under free discharge condition is ____________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
05 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q6
A rectangular channel is 4.0 m wide and carries a discharge of 2.0 m3 /s with a depth of 0.4 m. The channel transitions to a maximum width contraction at a downstream location, without influencing the upstream flow conditions. The width (in meters) at the maximum contraction is ________________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
05 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q5
A circular settling tank is to be designed for primary treatment of sewage at a flow rate of 10 million liters/day. Assume a detention period of 2.0 hours and surface loading rate of 40000 liters/m2 /day. The height (in meters) of the water column in the tank is _______________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
04 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q4
A horizontal curve of radius 1080 m (with transition curves on either side) in a Broad Gauge railway track is designed and constructed for an equilibrium speed of 70 kmph. However, a few years after construction, the Railway Authorities decided to run express trains on this track. The maximum allowable cant deficiency is 10 cm.
The maximum restricted speed (in kmph) of the express trains running on this track is _______________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
04 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q3
A vertical summit curve on a freight corridor is formed at the intersection of two gradients, +3.0% and –5.0%.
Assume the following:
Only large-sized trucks are allowed on this corridor
Design speed = 80 kmph
Eye height of truck drivers above the road surface = 2.30 m
Height of object above the road surface for which trucks need to stop = 0.35 m
Total reaction time of the truck drivers = 2.0 s
Coefficient of longitudinal friction of the road = 0.36
Stopping sight distance gets compensated on the gradient
The design length of the summit curve (in meters) to accommodate the stopping sight distance is __________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
04 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q2
A child walks on a level surface from point P to point Q at a bearing of 30°, from point Q to point R at a bearing of 90° and then directly returns to the starting point P at a bearing of 240° . The straight-line paths PQ and QR are 4 m each. Assuming that all bearings are measured from the magnetic north in degrees, the straight-line path length RP (in meters) is _________________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
03 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE2 Q1
A horizontal curve of radius 1080 m (with transition curves on either side) in a Broad Gauge railway track is designed and constructed for an equilibrium speed of 70 kmph. However, a few years after construction, the Railway Authorities decided to run express trains on this track. The maximum allowable cant deficiency is 10 cm.
The maximum restricted speed (in kmph) of the express trains running on this track is _______________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
01 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q10
The return period of a large earthquake for a given region is 200 years. Assuming that earthquake occurrence follows Poisson’s distribution, the probability that it will be exceeded at least once in 50 years is ________________ % (rounded off to the nearest integer).
01 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q9
The initial cost of an equipment is Rs. 1,00,000. Its salvage value at the end of accounting life of 5 years is Rs. 10,000. The difference in depreciation (in Rs.) computed using ‘double-declining balance method’ and ‘straight line method’ of depreciation in Year-2 is _____________ (in positive integer).
12 40 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q8
A slab panel with an effective depth of 250 mm is reinforced with 0.2% main reinforcement using 8 mm diameter steel bars. The uniform center-to-center spacing (in mm) at which the 8 mm diameter bars are placed in the slab panel is __________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
12 30 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Shift 1 Exam Ends
GATE 2025 Feb 15 shift 1 exam ended. The CollegeDekho team will try to connect the test takers to collect their feedback and memory based questions.
12 20 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q7
The total primary consolidation settlement (Sc) of a building constructed on a 10 m thick saturated clay layer is estimated to be 50 mm. After 300 days of the construction of the building, primary consolidation settlement was reported as 10 mm. The additional time (in days) required to achieve 50% of Sc will be ______________________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
12 00 PM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q6
An infinite slope is made up of cohesionless soil with seepage parallel to and up to the sloping surface. The angle of slope is 30° with respect to the horizontal ground surface. The unit weights of the saturated soil and water are 20 kN/m3 and 10 kN/m3, respectively.
The minimum angle of shearing resistance of the soil (in degrees) for the critically stable condition of the slope is _____________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
11 40 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q5
A soil sample was consolidated at a cell pressure of 20 kPa and a back pressure of 10 kPa for 24 hours during a consolidated undrained (CU) triaxial test. The cell pressure was increased to 30 kPa on the next day and it resulted in the development of pore water pressure of 1 kPa. The soil sample failed when the axial stress was gradually increased to 50 kPa. The pore water pressure at failure was recorded as 21 kPa. The value of Skempton’s pore pressure parameter B for the soil sample is ______________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
11 20 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q4
Activated carbon is used to remove a pollutant from wastewater in a mixed batch reactor, which follows first-order reaction kinetics.
At a reaction rate of 0.38 /day, the time (in days) required to remove the pollutant by 95% is ______________ (rounded off to 1 decimal place).
11 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q3
The number of trains and their corresponding speeds for a curved Broad Gauge section with 437 m radius, are
- 20 trains travel at a speed of 40 km/hr
- 15 trains travel at a speed of 50 km/hr
- 12 trains travel at a speed of 60 km/hr
- 8 trains travel at a speed of 70 km/hr
- 3 trains travel at a speed of 80 km/hr
If the gauge (center-to-center distance between the rail heads) is taken as 1750 mm, the required equilibrium cant (in mm) will be ______________ (rounded off to the nearest integer).
10 40 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q2
The following data is obtained from an axle load survey at a site:
Average rear axle load = 12000 kg
Number of commercial vehicles = 800 per day
The pavement at this site would be reconstructed over a period of 5 years from the date of survey. The design life of the reconstructed pavement is 15 years. Use the standard axle load as 8160 kg and the annual average vehicle growth rate as 4.0%. Assume that Equivalent Wheel Load Factor (EWLF) and Vehicle Damage Factor (VDF) are equal.
The cumulative standard axle (in msa) for the pavement design is ____________ (rounded off to 2 decimal places).
10 20 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Previous Years CE1 Q1
A bird is resting on a point P at a height of 8 m above the Mean Sea Level (MSL). Upon hearing a loud noise, the bird flies parallel to the ground surface and reaches a point Q which is located at a height of 3 m above MSL. The ground surface has a falling gradient of 1 in 2. Ignoring the effects of curvature and refraction, the horizontal distance (in meters) between points P and Q is _______________ (in integer)
10 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: When shift 2 will start?
GATE 2025 Feb 15 and 16 shift 2 exam will start at 2.30 PM and will be continued till 5.30 PM.
09 30 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Shift 1 Exam Starts (Scheduled for 9.30 AM)
GATE 2025 shift 1 exam starts, which will end at 12.30 PM. Post that the shift 1 subject wise unofficial answer keys will be added here.
09 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: MN Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE MNL exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
08 45 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: XL Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE XL exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
08 30 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: XE Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE XE exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
08 15 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: ST Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE ST exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
08 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Gate Closed for Shift 1 Exam
GATE 2025 Feb 15 shift 1 exam gate closed. Candidates will not be allowed to enter or complete the reporting process for their respective shift’s exam.
07 45 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: CE2 Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE CE2 exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
07 30 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: BT Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE BT exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
07 15 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: PH Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE PH exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
07 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: CH Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE CH exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
06 45 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: GG Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE GG exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
06 30 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: CE1 Mock Test Link
Candidates who will be appearing for the February 16 GATE CE1 exam, can click on the following direct link to appear for the exam.
06 15 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Upcoming Events
Candidates can find out the shift-wise exam names conducted on Feb 16 here in the following table:
Shifts
Exam Names
Forenoon Session
CE1, GG, CH, PH, BT
Afternoon Session
CE2, ST, XE, XL, MN
06 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Things to Carry and Not to Carry
- Candidates should carry GATE admit card, Photo ID card, blue/ black point pen, passport sized photograph of the candidates
- On the other hand, the candidates should not carry any electronic devices like Bluetooth headphones or mobile phones, wrist watches, calculators or any kind of stationary objects such as pencil, log table etc.
05 45 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Instructions to Follow inside Exam Hall
- It is necessary to choose the “Save” option after submitting every response, otherwise the answers will not be saved. It will take time to return back and save it again
- It will be better not to mark the answers if the candidates do not know the confirmed answer, otherwise the same will lead to deduct the marks
- Candidates should not carry any electronic gadgets inside the exam hall, otherwise they will be debarred from the exam
- Do not leave the exam hall until the exam ends
05 15 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: What is the Reporting Time?
The candidates are advised to report to the GATE exam centre by 8 AM for the Forenoon Session and by 1 PM for the Afternoon session exam. Post that, the candidates will not be allowed to enter inside the exam centre.
05 00 AM IST - 15 Feb'25
GATE 2025 Feb 15, 16 Unofficial answer Key: Day 3 Exam
Today is the GATE 2025 day 3 exam, which will be conducted in two shifts. The Forenoon session will take place from 9.30 AM to 12.30 PM whereas the Afternoon session will take place from 2.30 PM to 5.30 PM.
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