Follow us
The unofficial CUET UG Geography Answer Key 2024 prepared by subject experts can be checked here for all question paper sets Set A, B, C, and D.
CUET UG Geography Answer Key 2024CUET UG Geography Answer Key 2024: The National Testing Agency conducted the CUET UG 2024 Geography exam on May 17, 2024, in the first shift, from 10 AM to 10.45 AM. The difficulty level of the Geography paper was easy to moderate and were direct in nature. The Geography question paper of the CUET UG 2024 exam included 50 questions. Among these, the students had to answer 40 questions. Each of the questions carried 5 marks, hence, the total weightage of the CUET UG Geography exam was 200 marks. Note, that the candidates will get a deduction of 1 mark for every wrongly marked answer. The mode of the CUET UG Geography exam was offline (a pen and paper-based exam).
CUET UG official answer key 2024 for the Geography paper will be released in the first week of June 2024. Till then the candidates can check out the unofficial answer key of the CUET UG Geography answer key 2024 here. Along with the Geography unofficial answer key, the candidates can check out the detailed question paper analysis here.
CUET UG Unofficial Answer Key 2024 (Other subjects) | CUET UG 2024 May 17 Answer Key Set A, B, C, and D |
|---|
CUET UG Geography Unofficial Answer Key 2024 (All Sets) Available
Here the candidates can check out the CUET UG Geography unofficial answer key 2024 for all the sets of questions in the following table. The candidates will get the same questions in all the sets of A, B, C, and D. Only the sequence of the questions in all the sets will be different. Therefore, the question-wise answers are being added for CUET UG Geography 2024. You can also check CUET Percentile Score 2024 for All Subjects .
Questions | Answers |
|---|---|
|
1. Which of the following is a land-locked harbour 2?
(1) Paradwip port (2) Tuticorin port (3) Haldia port (4) Visakhapatnam port | (2) Tuticorin port |
|
2. Which of the following ports is confronted with the problem of silt accumulation?
(1) Mumbai port (2) New Mangalore port (3) Kolkata port (4) Paradwip port | (3) Kolkata port |
|
3. Where is the headquarters of the 'Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries' (OPEC)?
(1) Montevideo (2) Vienna (3) Minsk (4) Aden | (2) Vienna |
|
4. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was transformed into the World Trade Organization in
(1) 1995 (2) 1991 (3) 2005 (4) 1976 | (1) 1995 |
|
5. Pykara Hydroelectric Plant was built in
(1) 1929 (2) 1931 (3) 1932 (4) 1942 | (2) 1931 |
|
6. The total utilisable water resources in India is about _cubic km.
(1) 4,000 (2) 1,969 (3) 1,869 (4) 1,122 | (3) 1,869 |
|
7. The first radio programme was broadcast in India in
(1) 1910 (2) 1913 (3) 1923 (4) 1932 | (3) 1923 |
|
8. Canberra was planned by
(1) Panck Geddes (2) Walter Battey Griffin (3) Jean Gottmann (4) George Zinf | (2) Walter Burley Griffin |
|
9. Match List I with List II
List I: (A) Aerial Differentiation (B) Spatial Organization (C) Behavioural School (D) Post Modernism List II: (I) Identifying the uniqueness of any region and understanding how and why it is different (II) Application of quantitative techniques in Geography (III) Discontent with quantitative revolution and its dehumanized manner of doing Geography. (IV) Focus on local content Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(1), (D)-(II) | (1) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) |
|
10. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the characteristics of intensive subsistence agriculture dominated by wet paddy cultivation.
(A) Land holdings are very small due to the high density of population. (B) Farmers work with the help of family labour leading to intensive use of land. (C) Farm yard manure is used to maintain the fertility of the soil. (D) The yield per unit area is low, but productivity per labour is high. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only (3)(A), (B) and (C) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only | (3) (A), (B), and (C) only |
|
11. Arrange the following agricultural regions from equator to pole:
(A) Commercial grain farming in the Prairies (B) Reindeer rearing by the Eskimos (C) Tea plantations of north-east India (D) Primitive subsistence farming in Indonesia Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (D), (A), (B) (2) (D), (C), (A), (B) (3) (D), (C), (B), (A) (4) (C), (D), (B), (A) | (2) (D), (C), (A), (B) |
|
12. Arrange the following as per the stages of demographic transition model:
(A) Population growth is slow due to high birth and high death rate. (B) Fertility remains high, but mortality declines at a faster pace. (C) Fertility declines at a faster pace, but mortality declines gradually. (D) Population growth is slow due to low birth and low death rate. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) (2) (A), (C), (B), (D) (3) (D), (B), (C), (A) (4) (D), (C), (B), (A) | (1) (A), (B), (C), (D) |
|
13. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Station): (A) Chita (B) Winnipeg (C) Broken Hill (D) Chicago List-II (Trans-Continental Railway): (I) Australian Trans-Continental Railway (II) Union Pacific Railway (III) Trans-Siberian Railway (IV) Trans-Canadian Railway Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B) (II), (C) (III), (D)-(IV) (2) (А)-(Ш), (B) (IV), (C) (1), (D) - (II) (3) (А)-(II), (B)-(1), (C)-(IV), (D) - (III) (4) (А)-(III), (B)-(II), (C) (TV), (D)-(1) | (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(1), (D)-(II) |
|
14. Arrange the following copper mines in North to South direction:
(A) Alwar (B) Bhilwara (C) Khetri (D) Udaipur Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (B), (D), (C), (A) (2) (C), (B), (A), (D) (3) (B), (C). (D), (A) (4) (C), (A), (B), (D) | (4) (C), (A), (B), (D) |
|
15. Arrange the agricultural development of India in chronological order from Independence to the present day:
(A) Green Revolution (B) Agro-Climatic Planning (C) Intensive Agricultural District Programme (D) National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (C), (A), (B), (D) (2) (B), (C), (D), (A) (3) (B), (A), (D), (C) (4) (D), (A), (C), (B) | (1) (C), (A), (B), (D) |
|
16. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Energy Type): (I) Gujarat and Rajasthan (II) West Coast of India (III) Tarapur (IV) Manikaran List-II (Key Locations/Regions): (A) Nuclear energy (B) Wind energy (C) Tidal energy (D) Geothermal energy Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(1), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) (3) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(1), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D) (1) | (2) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) |
|
17. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to land degradation? (A) All degraded lands are wasteland.
(B) All degraded lands may not be wasteland, but unchecked process of development may lead the conversion to wasteland. (C) Land degradation is permanent or temporary decline in productive capacity of the land. (D) Waterlogged, marshy areas and gullied lands are different types of degraded lands. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only | (2) (A), (B) and (D) only |
|
18. Identify from the following the statement which is not correct about the Rhine waterways.
(1) It is navigable for 700 km. (2) It flows through a rich coalfield and the whole basin has become a prosperous manufacturing area. (3) Ocean-going vessels can reach upto Cologne. (4) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France and Russia. | (4) It connects the industrial areas of Switzerland, France and Russia. |
|
19. Arrange the following states in the descending order of their population density as per Census of India, 2011:
(A) West Bengal (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Kerala (D) Tamil Nadu Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (D),(A),(C),(B) (2) (A),(C),(B),(D) (3) (B),(A),(D),(C) (4) (C), (B), (D), (A) | (4) (C), (B), (D), (A) |
|
20. Match List-I with List-II: List-1 (Type of Town):
(1) Mhow (II) Katni (III) Satna (IV) Modinagar List-II (Example): (A) Industrial (B) Commercial (C) Transport (D) Garrison Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D) (1) (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D) - (IV) (3) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) | (3) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)(1) (A), (B) and (D) only |
|
21. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to the metropolis.
(A) It is often the chief centre or seat of some form of activity. (B) It could be administrative, commercial or industrial centre. (C) It generally serves a small hinterland. (D) It is a very large city or agglomeration of population. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (C) and (D) only (3) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only | (1) (A), (B) and (D) only |
|
22. Match List-I with List-II:
List-I (Economic Activity): (A) Quaternary (B) Secondary (C) Tertiary (D) Primary List-II (Example): (I) Manufacturing (II) Mining (III) Taxi services (IV) Research scientist Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A)-(1), (B)-(II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV) (2) (A)-(1), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D) (IV) (3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(1), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C) (1), (D) - (II) | (4) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) |
|
23. Identify from the following, the correct statements with reference to oil refineries in India.
(A) Digboi is an example of a market-based oil refinery. (B) Tatipaka Oil Refinery is located in Andhra Pradesh. (C) Numaligarh Oil Refinery is located in northeast India. (D) Bina Oil Refinery is located in Madhya Pradesh. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (D) only (2) (A), (B) and (C) only (3) (A), (C) and (D) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only | (1) (A), (B), and (D) only |
|
24. Identify from the following, the correct statements about transportation in India.
(A) Atal Tunnel passes through Pir Panjal Range. (B) About 80% Indian Railway track is of metre gauge. (C) The Inland Waterways Authority was set up in 1986. (D) Konkan Railway connects Roha in Karnataka to Mangalore in Kerala. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (1) (A), (B) and (C) only (2) (A) and (C) only (3) (A) and (B) only (4) (B), (C) and (D) only | (1) (A), (B), and (C) only |
|
25.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow.
The cottage industry is the smallest manufacturing unit The artisans use local raw materials and simple tools to produce everyday goods in their homes with the help of their family members or part-time labour. Finished products may be for consumption in the same household or for sale in local (village) markets. Capital and transportation do not wield much influence as this type of manufacturing has low commercial significance and most of the tools are devised locally, Some common everyday products produced in this sector of manufacturing include foodstuff, fabrics, mats, containers, tools, furniture, shoes and figurines of wood from the forest, shoes, thongs and other articles from leather, pottery and bricks from clays and stones. Goldsmiths make jewellery of gold, silver and bronze. Some artefacts and crafts are made out of bamboo and wood obtained locally from the forests. Small-scale manufacturing is distinguished from household industries by its production techniques and place of manufacture (a workshop outside the home/cottage of the producer). This type of manufacturing uses local raw materials, simple power-driven machines and semi-skilled labour. It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. Therefore, countries like India, China, Indonesia Brazil, etc. have developed labour-intensive small-scale manufacturing in order to provide employment to their population. Large-scale manufacturing involves a large market, various raw materials, enormous energy, specialised workers, advanced technology, assembly-line mass production and large capital. This kind of manufacturing developed in the last 200 years, in the United Kingdom, Northeastern USA and Europe. Now it has diffused almost all over the world. The small scale manufacturing and the cottage manufacturing are distinguished on the basis of (1) raw materials (2) quantity of production (3) production techniques (4) scale of profits | (3) production techniques |
|
26. Which one of the following is not a feature of small-scale manufacturing?
(1) It engages a semi-skilled labour force. (2) It provides employment and raises local purchasing power. (3) The artisans produce goods in their homes with the help of their family members or part-time labour. (4) It is labour-intensive manufacturing. | (4) It is labour-intensive manufacturing. |
|
27. From the following, identify the features of the cottage industry:
(1) Use of advanced technology (2) Specialized workers 6000 (3) Finished products may be for consumption in the same household (4) Mass production | (3) Finished products may be for consumption in the same household. |
|
28. Large-scale manufacturing is not
(1) capital intensive (2) Energy-intensive (3) technology intensive (4) labour intensive | (3) technology intensive. |
|
29. Which of the following is not a product of the cottage industry?
(1) Mat (2) Shoes (3) Car (4) Basket | (3) Car |
|
30.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the five questions that follow.
Thabur district is located in the westernmost agro-climatic zone in Madhya Pradesh. It is, in fact, one of the five most backward districts of the country. It is characterised by a high concentration of tribal population (mostly Bhils). The people suffer due 6 to poverty which has been accentuated by the high rate of resource degradation, both forest and land. The Watershed Management Programmes funded by both the ministries of "Rural Development" and "Agriculture", Government of India, has been successfully implemented in the Jhabua district which has gone a long way in preventing land degradation and improving soil quality. Watershed Management Programmes acknowledge the linkage between land, water and vegetation and attempt to improve the livelihoods of people through natural resource management and community participation. In the past five years, the programmes funded by the Ministry of Rural Development alone (implemented by Rajiv Gandhi Mission for Watershed Management) have treated 20 per cent of the total area under the Jhabua district. The Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in the northernmost part of the district and represents an interesting and successful case of government-NGO partnership and community participation in managing watershed programmes. The Bhils in Petlawad block, for example, (Sat Rundi hamlet of Karravat village) through their own efforts, have revitalized large parts of Common Property Resources (CPR). Each household planted and maintained one tree on the common property. They also have planted fodder grass on the pasture land and adopted social-fencing of these lands for at least two years. Even after that, they say, there would be no open grazing on these lands, but stall feeding of cattle, and they are thus confident that the pastures they have developed would sustain their cattle in future. An interesting aspect of this experience is that before the community embarked upon the process of management of the pasture, there was encroachment on this land by a villager from an adjoining village. The villagers called the Tehsildar to ascertain the rights on the common land The ensuing conflict was tackled by the villagers by offering to make the defaulter encroaching on the CPR, a member of their user group and sharing the benefits of greening the common lands/pastures. Petlawad block of Jhabua is located in which part of the district? (1) Southernmost (2) Westernmost (3) Northernmost 4) Easternmos | (3) Northernmost |
|
31. Which tribal community has a high concentration in the district of Jhabua?
(1) Bhils (2) Munda (3) Santhal (4) Meena | (1) Bhils |
|
32. The Watershed Management Programmes, which have been successfully implemented in Jhabua were funded by
(1) Ministry of Tourism (2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture (3) Ministry of Road Transport and Highways (4) Ministry of Tribal Affairs | (2) Ministries of Rural Development and Agriculture |
|
33. Which among the following was not used by Bhils to revitalise Common Property Resources?
(1) Plantation of fodder grass (2) Plantation of trees (3) Open grazing (4) Social-fencing | (3) Open grazing |
|
34. Jhabua district is located in which agro-climatic zone of Madhya Pradesh?
(1) Northernmost (2) Southernmost (3) Easternmost (4) Westernmost | (4) Westernmost |
|
35. Who of the following, defined Human Geography as "Conception resulting from a more synthetic knowledge of the physical laws governing our earth and of the relations between the living beings which inhabit it"?
(1) Ratzel (2) Blache (3) Taylor (4) Semple | (1) Ratzel |
|
36. "Geography is the study of human beings and environment where nature is supreme that dictates the lifestyle of human beings." Identify the geographical approach referred to in this statement from the following.
(1) Possibilism (2) Environmental Determinism (3) Behaviouralism (4) Humanism | (2) Environmental Determinism |
|
37. Which of the following geographers described the 'sture country' as a "living organism"?
(1) French (2) German (3) Australian (4) Indian | (2) German |
|
38. Which of the following country's population does not have triangular-shaped age-sex pyramid?
(1) Australia (2) Bangladesh (3) Nigeria (4) Mexico | (1) Australia |
|
39. Which of the following approaches was initially proposed by the International Labour Organization?
(1) Basic needs approach (2) Income Approach (3) Capability Approach (4) Welfare approach | (1) Basic Needs Approach |
|
40. Which of the following is not one of the pillars of Human Development?
(1) Equity (2) Affordability (3) Sustainability (4) Empowerment | (2) Affordability |
|
41. In which country is milk transported from farms to factories through pipelines?
(1) Inha (2) New Zealand (3) Canada (4) Mexico | (2) New Zealand |
|
42. What is the pattern of settlement that develops around a lake?
(1) Rectangular pattern (2) Linear pattern (3) T-shaped pattern (4) Circular pattern | (4) Circular pattern |
|
43. Which of the following is not a push factor for the migration of the rural population in India?
(1) High population pressure on the land (2) Availability of regular work (3) Lack of basic infrastructural facilities, health care, education, etc (4) Local conflicts | (2) Availability of regular work |
|
44. When and by whom was the first Human Development Report published?
(1) WHO in 1992 (2) UNDP in 1992 (3) WHO in 1991 (4) UNDP in 1990 | (4) UNDP in 1990 |
|
45. Among the following, which was the least populated state in 2011?
(1) Haryana (2) Tripura (3) Jharkhand (4) Sikkim | (4) Sikkim |
|
46. Which of the following States registered the highest population growth rate during 2001-2011?
(1) Karnataka (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Rajasthan (4) Maharashtra | (3) Rajasthan |
|
47. Dhani is an example of _ a type of rural settlements
(1) Hamleted (2) Dispersed (3) Semi-clustered (4) Clustered | (4) Clustered |
|
48. Which of the following towns developed as a satellite town?
(1) Rohtak (2) Sindri (3) Dispur (4) Mhow | (3) Dispur |
|
49. _ is an example of ancient town in India.
(1) Madurai (2) Hyderabad (3) Kolkata (4) Delhi | (4) Delhi |
|
50. "Boro", "Aman' and 'Aus' are _.
(1) tribes which are found in the north-eastern part of India (2) types of folk dance (3) names of rice crops (4) types of cotton crop | (3) names of rice crops |
Also Read | CUET UG Expected Cutoff 2024 for All Domain Subjects
CUET UG Geography Question Paper Analysis 2024 Available
Go through the CUET UG Geography question paper analysis 2024 here in the following table:
Aspect | Analysis |
|---|---|
Difficulty Level | Easy to Moderate |
Difficulty Level of Fundamentals of Human Geography | Easy to Moderate |
Difficulty Level of People and Economy | Moderate |
Topics with Maximum Weightage |
70% Indian Geography
|
Were there any out-of-syllabus questions? | No. Questions appeared from NCERT and were direct in nature 17 were fact-based, 10 were theory-based, 5 were matching-pair-based, 8 were statement-based, and 10 were passage-based questions. |
Expected Number of Good Attempts | 28+ |
Was the paper time-consuming? | No, not really |
Note, that the NTA will release the subject-wise CUET UG 2024 answer key after 2 to 3 days after the exam conclusion. At first, the authority will release the CUET UG Geography provisional answer key on the official website- cuet.samarth.ac.in. If required, the candidates can raise an objection against the CUET UG provisional answer key, and for the same, the candidates should pay Rs 200 as non-refundable fees.
Marks vs Percentile
| Range | Expected Percentile |
|---|---|
| 170 Marks | Expected Percentile for 170 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 160 Marks | Expected Percentile for 160 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 150 Marks | Expected Percentile for 150 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 140 Marks | Expected Percentile for 140 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 130 Marks | Expected Percentile for 130 Marks in CUET 2024 |
| 120 Marks | Expected Percentile for 120 Marks in CUET 2024 |
Percentile vs Marks
Expected CUET Cutoff 2024
| Name of the Subject | Link |
|---|---|
| Chemistry | CUET UG Chemistry Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| English | CUET UG English Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Biology | CUET UG Biology Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Economics | CUET UG Economics Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Physics | CUET UG Physics Expected Cutoff 2024 |
| Mathematics | CUET UG Mathematics Expected Cutoff 2024 |
