InstructionThese instructions are applicable only to questions 1 to 6
The 42"d Constitutional Amendment Act 1976 introduced the concept of environmental protection in an explicit manner into the Constitution through introduction of Article 48 -A and Article 51 -A (g). In many judgments, the Supreme Court ruled that both the s tate and its residents have a fundamental duty to preserve and protect their natural resources. The recent judgment obliquely makes way for an enforceable right and a potential obligation on the state unless the same is overturned by an Act of Parliamen t. India is signatory of various international environmental conservation treaties under which India has the binding commitment to reduce carbon emission. During the COP 21, India signed Paris Agreement along with 196 countries, under which universally bindin g agreement was made to limit greenhouse gas emission to levels that would prevent global temperatures from increasing to more than 1.5 degree Celsius before the industrial revolution. India has committed to generating 50% of its energy through renewable resources and will generate 500 GW of energy from non -fossil fuels by 2030, reducing the carbon emission by 1 billion ton. Additionally, India has committed to achieve net zero carbon emission target by 2070. Supreme Court's March 21, 2024 verdict builds on the bulwark of jurisprudence in place since 1986, and, through various other judgments, the Supreme Court has recognized the right to clean environment along with right to clean air, water and soil free from pollution which is absolutely necessary for the enjoyment of life. Any disturbance with these basic elements of environment would amount to violation of Article 21. It also establishes duty of the state to maintain ecological balance and hygienic environm ent. Although right to clean environment has existed, by recognizing the right against climate change it shall compel the states to prioritize environmental protection and sustainable development.
Question 1.
In which among the following, changes were introduced for environmental protection through the Constitution of India (42"" Amendment) Act? 1. Fundamental Rights 2. Fundamental Duties 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
Question 2.
The nature of binding commitment of India to reduce carbon emission through the signing of various international environmental conservation treaties especially the Paris Agreement may be described as:
Question 3.
Under Article 51 -A(g) of the Indian Constitution, it is specifically mentioned that citizens shall have the duty to protect and improve the natural environment that includes:
Question 4.
As per the aforementioned passage and decision of the Supreme Court:
Question 5.
According to the passage, what makes India committed to reduce carbon emission?
Question 6.
The passage mentions that "any disturbance with these basic elements of environment would amount to violation of Article 21". Article 21 of the Constitution deals with:
InstructionThese instructions are applicable only to questions 7 to 16
The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 that has provision for up to five years' imprisonment and a fine of up to ₹ 1 crore for malpractices and organized cheating in government recruitment exams was notified by the Union government and came into effect from June 21, 2024. The Bill had received assent from the President of India on the 13th February 2024. The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024 mentions punishments for "leakage of question paper or answer k ey", "directly or indirectly assisting the candidate in any manner unauthorizedly in the public examination" and "tampering with the computer network or a computer resource or a computer system" as offences done by a person, group of persons or institution s. Besides these, "creation of fake website to cheat or for monetary gain", "conduct of fake examination, issuance of fake admit cards or offer letters to cheat or for monetary gain" and "manipulation in seating arrangements, allocation of dates and shifts for the candidates to facilitate adopting unfair means in examinations" are also among the offences punishable under the law. "Any person or persons resorting to unfair means and offences under this Act shall be punished with imprisonment for a term not less than three years but which may extend to five years and with fine up to ₹10 lakh," said the Act. A service provider, engaged by the public examination authority for conduct of examinations, shall also be liable to be punished with imposition of a fine up to ₹1 crore "and proportionate cost of examination shall also be recovered” from it, according to the Act. Such service prov iders shall also be barred from being assigned with any responsibility for the conduct of any public examination for a period of four years.
Question 7.
A Bill becomes an Act only when ..
Question 8.
A service provider, engaged by the public examination authority for conduct of examinations, indirectly helped his family member by giving hint on questions that were supposed to be asked in the examination shall
Question 9.
An invigilator of a public examination found guilty of manipulating the seating arrangement to favour his relative writing the public examination is punished by the Court. Which among the following is the appropriate punishment as per the punishment me ntioned in the above passage?
Question 10.
Identify which of the following is not an unfair means relating to the conduct of a public examination?
Question 11.
Who among the following is not a service provider in the context of a public examination?
Question 12.
Statement: If Ram has finished reading the instructions, let him begin activities accordingly
Assumption I: Ram has understood the instructions.
Assumption II: Ram would be able to act accordingly
Question 13.
Statement: Children below the age of seven should not be prosecuted for crimes.
Assumption I: Generally children below seven cannot distinguish between right and wrong.
Assumption II: Children below the age of seven are generally mentally unsound.
Question 14.
Statement: The employer has a right to reject the application of any candidate for employment without assigning any reason while short listing candidates for interview.
Assumption I: The employer is impartial and believes in transparency in employment practices.
Assumption II: The employer wants to call only those candidates for interview, who in his opinion arc eligible.
Question 15.
Statement: The government has decided to reduce custom duty on computers.
Assumption I: The government wants to make computer accessible to larger number of people.
Assumption II: Prices in domestic market may go up in near future.
Question 16.
Statement: You can win over new friends by your warm smile.
Assumption I: It is necessary to win over new friends.
Assumption II: It is always better to smile warmly to new persons.
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InstructionThese instructions are applicable only to questions 1 to 7
The Supreme Court of India declared that the right to privacy is a fundamental right and that the right to informational privacy is part of this right. Subsequently, the Parliament of India enacted a new law relating to digital personal data protection . The law applies to Indian residents and businesses collecting the data of Indian residents. It also applies to non -citizens living in India whose data processing is "in connection with any activity related to the offering of goods or services" that happe ns outside India. The law allows personal data to be processed for any lawful purpose. If the personal data is sensitive, then additional safeguards are to be observed. The entity processing data can do so either by taking the concerned individual's consen t or for "legitimate uses". which include situations where an individual has voluntarily provided personal data for a specified purpose. The law requires that an individual's consent must be "free, specific, informed, unconditional and unambiguous with a clear affirmative action" and for a specific purpose. The data collected has to be limited to that necessary for the specified purpose. A clear notice containing these details has to be provided to consumers, including the rights of the concerned individual and the grievance redressal mechanism. Individuals have the right to withdraw consent if consent is the ground on which data is being processed. The law also creates rights and obligations for individuals. These include the right to -get a summary of all t he collected data and to know the identities of all other entities/organisations with whom the personal data has been shared, along with a description of the data shared. Individuals also have the right to correction, completion, updating, and erasure of t heir data. Besides, they have a right to obtain redressal for their grievances and a right to nominate persons who will receive their data.
Question 1.
An Indian company collects personal data from its users to provide personalized services. The company intends to share this data with a third -party vendor for targeted advertisements, Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what must t he company do before sharing the data?
Question 2.
A social media platform processes user data based on the consent given during account creation. A user now wishes to withdraw consent to process their data. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what must the platform do?
Question 3.
A financial institution collects biometric data from its clients for verification purposes. If the clients wish to know what data has been collected, under the digital personal data protection law in India, what right allows them to request this inform ation?
Question 4.
A startup provides a health -tracking app that collects sensitive health data from users. Under the digital personal data protection law in India, what additional precautions must the startup take compared to regular personal data?
Question 5.
As per the passage, what are the rights included under the digital data protection law of India? 1. Right to get the summary of collected data 2. Right to know to whom the data has been shared 3. Right to correct and update the data 4. Right to get the data removed from the database 5. Right to decide on who can receive their data 6 Right to get redressal of grievances
Question 6.
3, 9, ...., 6561
Question 7.
100, 50, 33. 33,...., 20
InstructionThese instructions are applicable only to questions 8 to 19
However, determining whether an intermediary has fulfilled its due diligence obligations can be complex. The Indian judiciary has been actively interpreting this provision. One significant case is the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, in which the Supreme Court clarified that intermediaries are required to act upon a valid court order or government directive for content removal, not upon private complaints. The court also emphasized that the intermediaries should not take a proactive role in monitoring content, as this could potentially infringe on free speech. While the law provides a safe harbor, it does not absolve intermediaries from their responsibilities. Online defamation cases often involve a balancing act between the right to freedom of expression and the right to reputation. The Indian legal system requires a careful examination of the content, context, and intent of the statements to determine whether they qualify as defamatory. Additionally, the plaintiff in an online defamation case must prove that the statement was false, damaging to their reputation, and made with a degree of fault, such as negligence or actual malice.
Question 8.
What is the primary focus of the passage?
Question 9.
What is online defamation, as described in the passage?
Question 10.
What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as mentioned in the passage?
Question 11.
According to the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case, under what circumstances should intermediaries act in response to content removal?
Question 12.
How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression and the Right to Reputation in online defamation cases?
Question 13.
In an online defamation case, what must the plaintiff prove about the defamatory statement?
Question 14.
What is the primary focus of the passage?
Question 15.
What is online defamation, as described in the passage?
Question 16.
What is the significance of Section 79 of the Information Technology Act, 2000, as mentioned in the passage?
Question 17.
According to the Supreme Court in the Shreya Singhal v. Union of India case, under what circumstances should intermediaries act in response to content removal?
Question 18.
How does the Indian legal system balance the Right to Freedom of Expression and the Right to Reputation in online defamation cases?
Question 19.
In an online defamation case, what must the plaintiff prove about the defamatory statement?
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