KCET Biology Answer Key 2024 (Available): All sets questions with answer key solutions

Aman Agarwal

Updated On: April 30, 2024 07:32 am IST

KCET Biology answer key 2024 for all sets prepared by subject experts and coaching institutes can be checked here. The Biology exam of KCET 2024 was conducted on April 18. 

KCET Biology Answer Key 2024KCET Biology Answer Key 2024

KCET Biology Answer Key 2024: Karnataka Examination Authority (KEA) conducted the KCET Biology exam 2024 on April 18 from 10:30 AM to 11:50 AM. The Biology question paper of KCET 2024 consists of 60 questions for 60 marks, and there is no negative marking in the exam. As the official Biology answer key of KCET 2024 will be released within 7 days after the exam, the candidates can rely on the KCET Biology unofficial answer key 2024 prepared by subject experts. The unofficial answer key of Biology shall help students predict their expected score based on which KCET expected rank 2024 can be predicted. Through the KCET Biology 2024, the candidates can aspire for admission to B.Sc Agriculture, Pharmacy, Nursing and Paramedical courses.

Provisional KCET Answer Key 2024 Released: Download PDF KCET Expected Rank 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage

KCET Biology Unofficial Answer Key 2024 (All Sets)

The question-wise answers for KCET Biology 2024 has been updated. The questions in all sets of KCET Biology question paper 2024 will remain the same. However, the sequence order of questions will change across sets.

S. No Questions Answers

Following representations P, Q and R denote a few steps of Griffith Experiment. Identify the Correct ones:

P.   R strain → Inject into mice → Mice die X

Q.  S strain (Heat killed) → Inject into mice — Mice die

R. R strain → Inject into mice → Mice live

R only

In tRNA that region that binds with mRNA is

Anticodon loop of tRNA
3 The principle of vaccination is based on which property of the immune system Dryopethicus
4 Mule is the result of Interspecific hybridization
5 Genome HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help of an enzyme called Reverse Transcriptasee

Read the following statements:
Statement I: Morphine is obtained by acetylation of Heroin.
Statement II: Cannabinoids are known for their effect on the cardiovascular system

Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
7 Which among the following is used to treat Emphysema?
(A) Human Hormone - alpha - Antitrypsin
(B) Human alpha - Interferon
(C) Human protein - alpha -Antitrypsin
(D) Human alpha - Lactalbumin
8 Homeostasis is a condition where the organisms
(A) Maintain a constant internal environment in everchanging external environment
(B) do not maintain a constant internal environment
(C) Change their internal environment according to their external environment
(D) Change their internal environment when the external environment is constant
9 Which of the following is not a parasitic adaptation?
(A) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(B) Absence of adhesive organs or suckers
(C) Loss of digestive system
(D) High reproductive capacity
10 DNA polymerase of Thermus aquaticus is Thermostable
11 If a recombinant DNA bearing gene for resistance to Ampicillin transferred into E.coli cells, host cells become transformed into Ampicillin resistant cells. What happens when these E.coli are grown on medium containing Ampicillin? Non-transformants will die and transformant will grow
12 Which of the following based upon the principle of antigen-antibody interaction? ELISA
13 A strict protection of biodiversity hotspots could reduce the ongoing mass extinction by almost 30%
14 Identify the incorrect match respect to recently extinct animals and their place extinction according to IUCN Red list
(A) Dodo-Mauritius
(B) Quagga – Africa
(C) Thylacine – Australia
(D) Steller’s Sea Cow – North America
15 According to the hypothesis proposed by environmental biologists, a relatively constant environment in tropics promotes Niche specialization and greater species diversity
16 In the prevention of air pollution, the role of scrubber is to remove Gaseous SO 2
17 Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer. (Nitrite rich fertilizer, carbon dioxide.......). B
18 The mRNA has Untranslated Regions (UTRs) At both 3' -end and 5' -end beyond Terminator codon and before AUG respectively
19 In Structural gene, the template DNA strand has nucleotide sequences 3' ATGCATGCATGCATGC 5'   . Find the correct and complimentary nucleotide sequence on coding strand 5' TACGTACGTACGTACG 3'
20 Read the following statements Statement I : All vertebrates develop a row of vestigial gill slits during embryonic stage. Statement II : Embryos always pass through the adult stages of other animals. Statement I is correct, Statement II is incorrect
21 Which of the following exhibits haplodiplontic lifecycle ? Ectocarpus
22 Identify, the phylum which shows the following characteristics: Ctenophora
23 When a flower has both stamens and carpels it is described as Bisexual
24 Ciliated epithelial cells are present in Bronchioles
25 Which of the following statements is correct with reference to vacuoles? It is membrane bound and contains water and excretory substances.
26 Exoskeleton of Arthropods is made up of unique complex polysaccharide known as Chitin
27 The enzyme Recombinase is required at which stage of Meiosis I? Pachytene
28 The water potential of pure water is Zero
29 . Match the pigments given in List I with their colour in chromatogram given in List II. (Chlorophyll 'b', Carotenoids B
30 Which is the intermediate compound that links the end product of Glycolysis with TCA Cycle? Acetyl CoA
31 . Auxins : Apical dominance : : Gibberellins : Bolting
32 The term Uremia refers to Accumulation of Urea in blood.
33 The typical 'lub-dub' sounds heard during heartbeat are produced due to Closure of bicuspid and tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves
34 The functional unit of contraction is a Portion of myofibril between two successive Z-lines”
35 Match the parts of the brain given in List I with their functions given in List II. (Medulla oblongata, Hypothalamus, ....... D
36 Hydra reproduces asexually by producing Buds
37 When male and female gametes are morphologically distinct, the condition is known as Heterogametes
38 The role of Filiform apparatus in synergids is to Guide the entry of pollen tube
39 Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same plant, is called Geitonogamy
40 Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta? LH
41 In human females, the endometrium of uterus consists of Glandular layer
42 If two primary spermatocytes and two primary oocytes undergo meiosis simultaneously, what will be the ratio of spermatozoa and ova produced at the end of the gametogenesis? 4:1
43 The Government of India legalised MTP with some strict regulations in the year 1971
44 The process in which a small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision, is called Vasectomy
45 Test cross in pea plant is A cross between F2 tall plant and recessive parent.
46 The genotype ratio of incomplete dominance is 1:2:1
47 Find the incorrect statement among the following:
(A) In sex linked recessive traits the gene is transmitted from unaffected carrier female to some of male progeny.
(B) Accumulation of phenylpyruvic acid in brain results in mental retardation
(C) Individuals affected by Down’s Syndrome will have congenital heart defect and are more intelligent.
(D) Turner’s Syndrome is caused due to the absence of one X- chromosome.
48 In a dihybrid cross between a true breeding round yellow seeded and true breeding wrinkled green seeded pea plant, the ratio of segregation of round and wrinkled seed traits in F2 is 3:1
49 Stanley Miller simulated the conditions of pre – biotic earth using spark – discharge apparatus. Which organic compounds were observed by him on analysing the end product of his experiment? Amino acids
50 Most ape - like ancestral primate was Dryopithecus
51 The principle of vaccination is based on which property of immune system? Memory
52 Genome of HIV replicates in the macrophages with the help of an enzyme called Reverse Transcriptase
53 Read the following statements:
Statement I: Morphine is obtained by acetylation of Heroin.
Statement II: Cannabinoids are known for their effect on cardiovascular system Which of the following options is correct with reference to these statements?
54 Identify the bacterial disease among the following:
(A) Brown rust of wheat
(B) Tobacco mosaic disease
(C) Black rot of crucifers
(D) Late blight of potato
53 Match the nutrients given in List-I with the source in List-II: (vitamin A, single cell protein) B
54 The chemical substances which are produced by some microbes which can kill or retard the growth of other microbes are known as D
55 Select the correct statement from the following: D
56 Which of these enzymes is required to cleave a plasmid? B
57 The natural reservoir of phosphorus is A
58 The sequence of communities of primary succession in water is Phytoplanktons -> Rooted hydrophytes -> Free floating hydrophytes -> Reed swamps -> Marsh meadows -> Scrubs -> Trees.
59 Match the type of adaptation given in List-I with their examples given in List-II. Select the option showing correct combination (Biochemical adaptation, Behavioural adaptation 1-q, 2-p, 3-s, 4-r
60 The annual net primary productivity of the biosphere is approximately 170 billion tons

Also read | Out of Syllabus Questions in KCET 2024

KEA is expected to release the official answer key of KCET 2024 by the last week of April, and the results are expected to be released either by the first week of May or before May 10. The candidates must note that the 2nd PUC marks will have 50% weightage in determining the KCET ranks. If any student registered for admission in multiple courses, they must note that there will be a separate rank for each course.
Also Check |

Links Links
KCET Mathematics Answer Key 2024 KCET Mathematics Question Paper Analysis 2024
KCET Physics Answer Key 2024 KCET Physics Question Paper Analysis 2024
-- KCET Chemistry Question Paper Analysis 2024

KCET Marks vs Rank Analysis with 2nd PUC Weightage

Range Link to check expected rank
165 to 175 Expected Rank for 165 to 175 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Weightage
155 to 164 Expected Rank for 155 to 164 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
145 to 154 Expected Rank for 145 to 154 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
135 to 144 Expected Rank for 135 to 144 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
125 to 134 Expected Rank for 125 to 134 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
115 to 124 Expected Rank for 115 to 124 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
105 to 114 Expected Rank for 105 to 114 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
95 to 104 Expected Rank for 95 to 104 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
85 to 94 Expected Rank for 85 to 94 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
75 to 84 Expected Rank for 75 to 84 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
65 to 74 Expected Rank for 65 to 74 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
55 to 64 Expected Rank for 55 to 64 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
45 to 54 Expected Rank for 45 to 54 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage
35 to 44 Expected Rank for 35 to 44 Marks in KCET 2024 with 2nd PUC Marks Weightage

KCET Course-Wise Expected Cutoff 2024

Name of the Course Cutoff Link
B.Sc Agriculture Expected KCET Agriculture Cutoff 2024
Pharmacy Previous Year's KCET Pharmacy Cutoff
B.Tech Expected KCET B.Tech Cutoff 2024

KCET Subject-Wise Analysis 2024

Links Links
KCET Biology Question Paper Analysis 2024 KCET Result Expected Release Date 2024

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